Dart Firing Stun Gun Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which statement correctly describes arcing through materials in the context of DFSG use?
• If a subject is near water at the time of a DFSG deployment, what is a possible risk?
• Which medical conditions may require additional caution before using a stun gun? (Variant of safety considerations)
• What are the two small darts connected by wire to the TASER commonly called?
• How should you store a Dart Firing Stun Gun when not in use?
• Which is a recommended post-incident reporting practice?
• Which document best reflects the regulatory basis for stun device use across jurisdictions?
• If the probe spread is very minimal due to a close shot or a drive stun with a live cartridge, what action away from the probes will increase the spread and cause incapacitation?
• In the described context, resistance escalates to active when the person has the apparent ability to threaten the officer or escape. Which scenario best describes this context?
• If a subject is suspected to be under illicit substances affecting coordination, which steps should you take?
• What is the recommended approach regarding de-escalation when using a stun device?
• What legal considerations govern possession of a stun gun by civilians?
• Which statement best reflects responsible use of a stun device?
• If only one probe strikes, which function can act as a second probe by completing the circuit?
• Dart-firing stun weapons can propel darts up to how many feet?
• The TASER device is shaped like a handgun and uses what to propel its two darts?
• What is gained when pain or involuntary neuromuscular contractions occur, enabling the officer to restrain the subject?
• The stun gun was invented in the ______
• Which statement best describes the proper re-holstering procedure after an encounter?
• Which environmental factors should be considered before deploying a stun device to reduce slip hazards and ensure stability?
• How long is a cycle?
• The number of five-second cycles should be limited to which actions?
• What is the recommended practice for re-holstering after an encounter?
• A stun device's current frequency is designed to do what relative to the body's signals?
• The dart-firing stun gun is not to be used to ______ a subject to give statements or perform an illegal act.
• In as safe and practical a manner as possible, an officer should attempt to discern if a subject is ______.
• Drive stun is intended to produce which effect on the subject when used appropriately?
• Which statement is true regarding injury risk with stun devices?
• The portion of a subject's body that should be targeted for back shots and lower center mass is known as what?
• Who will operate the DFSG?
• Stun guns and dart-firing stun guns are available for purchase and legal use by which group in Florida?
• Is it appropriate to use a stun device on a moving vehicle occupant?
• In TASER-style devices, which description matches the discharge electrodes?
• The subject's torso and limbs will contract or extend depending on what?
• What is the consequence of failing to report a stun device incident?
• The court has established law on the use of a TASER in the case of _______
• If the dart firing stun gun gets wet, what should you do?
• This new weapon was called a TASER©, an acronym for _________
• The wider the probes spread on the target, the greater the effectiveness of the weapon.
• Which of the following describes an 'Alternative target' site?
• Avoid ______ a subject's head, throat, face, breast, chest, or area of the heart, groin, genitals
• Which statement best describes the DFSG's role relative to firearms?
• _______ sites might be the back near the shoulders or the back of the legs where, if clothed, the clothing fits tighter and the probes will conduct electricity to the subject more effectively
• Which custody procedure is appropriate for individuals subjected to dart-firing stun gun use, even if they are receiving medical care?
• What process helps prevent many physical encounters?
• Which of the following best describes the lawful limit on the number of 5-second cycles?
• Drive stun occurs when the front of the dart-firing stun gun is directly touched to the body. What term describes this action?
• The electrodes are fitted with small _____ so that they will grab onto a subject's clothing.
• When articulating the decision to use a DFSG, the basis should include training, experience, and assessment of the circumstances.
• Under Florida Statutes, how is a dart firing stun gun categorized?
• The charge can pass through what barrier?
• The use of a DFSG in a punitive manner without lawful authority may be violating a citizen's _______
• The DFSG uses the same mechanism as which common device?
• What is the primary function of the probes when the stun gun is fired?
• What is the primary purpose of documenting faults and maintenance actions for a stun device?
• What agencies or bodies may certify stun device training?
• Which device is about the size of a flashlight, runs on nine-volt batteries, and boosts voltage to 20,000-150,000 volts while reducing amperage?
• Removed probes should be treated as ______.
• What does EID stand for?
• Electricity tends to flow along which path?
• Which principle guides the use of force to be proportional to the threat?
• The reporting must include an explanation of what?
• Which case is commonly cited as establishing TASER use law?
• Why is it important to avoid aiming at the head or neck region when possible?
• In the context of equipment security, what is a primary reason to store stun devices away from unauthorized access?
• Which groups are noted to have the greater standoff distance in DFSG design?
• What does CED stand for?
• Low voltage can injure if the ______ is high enough.
• What should be done if a drive stun is used with close range to ensure incapacitation is achieved?
• Before deploying a stun device, what environmental factors should be assessed to minimize risk to bystanders?
• Which acronym stands for 'Conducted Energy Weapon'?
• Exposing a subject who is standing in water to a dart-firing stun gun does not cause electrocution or increase the power applied to the subject.
• TASER's name references an early 1900s children's novel by ______
• What does ECD stand for?
• Use of force incidents are judged on whether a reasonable person would believe the officers' actions were justifiable based on the ______ known to officers at the time that they used force.
• What is the role of training in the safe use of a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• What is a recommended practice to maintain safe distance when deploying a stun device?
• The dart firing stun gun is used to control a person during an arrest or custody when his or her resistance escalates from ______ physical resistance to ______ physical resistance
• The ______ are used to control and restrain, mostly in correctional settings.
• Which of the following is a best practice for post-incident reporting after using a stun device?
• How should you handle cartridges when transporting or storing?
• What best distinguishes a non-lethal stun device from a firearm in terms of intent and lethality?
• What wattage range is described as a pain compliance tool that does not interfere with the nervous system?
• What should be checked during a pre-use inspection of a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• Which acronym stands for 'Dart Firing Stun Gun'?
• Which statement best describes the factors to consider before deploying a stun device?
• The charge will pass through heavy clothing and skin, but the charge is not intense enough to ________ the subject's body unless it is applied for extended periods.
• Which statute states that it is not a violation to carry, for purposes of lawful self-defense in a concealed manner, a dart-firing stun gun?
• If the officer misses or only one probe hits, what is the recommended next step?
• A form of psychosis resulting from drug use is called?
• What should be done if a bystander is accidentally struck by a dart?
• The most prudent approach may be for the officer to do what?
• What should you do if the device is dropped during deployment?
• What is the typical time window after custody for unexplained in-custody deaths to occur?
• The TASER device is commonly shaped like a what?
• The first dart-firing stun gun was developed in which year?
• Which officer is designated to operate the DFSG during an encounter?
• The brand name TASER is associated with what kind of device?
• According to Florida Statutes, you are allowed to decide to use a dart-firing stun gun only when a subject is actively physically resisting; you would not use it for verbal defiance, belligerence, punishment, or horse play.
• Which condition increases the risk of injury when using a stun device?
• How should the 5-second cycles be applied?
• What is the best approach for handling subjects suffering from psychosis to protect them and others from potential injury?
• In cases of unexplained deaths involving in-custody subjects who have been tased, bizarre behavior is due to which mental states?
• The device affects which body system?
• Which phrase best captures the objective described for handling suspects safely and practically?
• Which statute states that a person may openly carry a dartfiring stun gun for purposes of lawful self-defense?
• The quickest and safest way to handle a non-compliant subject exhibiting excited delirium is to _____ and _____, if necessary.
• An officer should first attempt to gain control of a situation by using ________
• Which principle applies to the use-of-force continuum relevant to stun devices?
• What is the primary purpose of a Dart Firing Stun Gun in law enforcement or security contexts?
• During engagement, what should be done to maintain electrical contact as the subject moves?
• What should you do if the device shows a fault indicator during inspection?
• The device generally used as a crowd control device for public riots and in correctional settings is the
• Why is verbal de-escalation before deploying a stun device important?
• Probes removed from the skin should be treated as _______.
• _______ is the measure of electrical current or power.
• Which statement about device safety and readiness is true?
• For a stun gun to operate, electricity must flow between the
• Which term describes the broad classification for unexplained in-custody deaths?
• What is the recommended distance to maintain from a subject when deploying a stun device?
• The reporting adjectives describing the DFSG use should be which pair?
• What is the importance of maintaining a safe stance and control when securing a subject after deployment?
• How many backup officers should be present to handcuff the subject after the officer with the DFSG has gained compliance?
• Which component of a stun gun delivers the electrical pulse to the target?
• Electronic control devices are all generally built using the same principle, which is delivering relatively _______ (amperage and wattage) coupled with ______ to a subject
• Which acronym corresponds to 'Conducted Energy Device'?
• EMD stands for electro-muscular disruption. Which body system is primarily affected?
• Which combination describes the electrical charge delivered by the stun gun?
• Which action is required for the charge to pass into the subject's body?
• One of the two most common types of stun guns is a basic model.
• How should you manage equipment after training exercises to avoid contamination or misuse?
• The DFSG design enables greater standoff distance; which two user groups are specified for the longer distances?
• What immediate effect does a dart-firing stun gun have on its target's system?
• Which acronym corresponds to 'Electronic Control Device'?
• Which statement best describes safety considerations regarding the line of fire?
• If an officer decides to use a dart firing stun gun, he or she will be expected to articulate that, based on ______, _____, and _____
• Which statement best describes PPE usage during deployment?
• Which term describes a state of heightened agitation and delirium often seen with stimulant use?
• What is the purpose of a safety switch on a stun device?
• What does DFSG stand for?
• Why is it important to maintain a log of all uses of a stun device?
• Which of the following describes the typical immediate state of the subject during stun exposure?
• What is the recommended approach when dealing with individuals with mental health conditions?
• The subject has a hard time telling his or her muscles to move and may become _______, ______, and _______.
• Excessive force claims are analyzed under which constitutional amendment?
• _______ should remove all deeply embedded probes or probes that penetrate sensitive tissue areas (i.e., neck, face, groin, female breast, etc.).
• Which of the following is NOT typically required for certification to carry or deploy a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• Which action is NOT recommended when a subject may be under the influence affecting coordination?
• The TASER device uses what to propel two small darts connected by wire to the device?
• The reporting must include which element regarding the use of the DFSG?
• What environmental or structural hazards could impede safe use of a stun device?
• What is a primary safety consideration to minimize bystander risk when aiming a stun device?
• The use of a dart-firing stun gun is not a substitute for the use of a _______
• The basic idea of a stun gun is to disrupt the body's communication system by generating a ___________,___________ electrical charge.
• What is the ethical obligation of officers or security personnel when using a stun device?
• Which statement best describes readiness for use of a stun device?
• Why is it important to avoid dry-firing or discharging without a proper target?
• Subjects expecting enforcement encounters may conceal which items under clothing to reduce the device's effectiveness?
• When a stun gun is pressed against a subject and the trigger is held, the charge passes into the subject's body.
• Which factor is NOT a consideration when deciding to deploy a stun device?
• What voltage range is typically produced by the boosted circuitry in stun devices?
• Which Florida statute was a response to inconsistent stun gun use statewide?
• Claims that officers used excessive force in the course of an arrest, investigatory stop, or other seizure are analyzed under the ______ objective reasonableness standard.
• Which acronym stands for a device that immobilizes via electric energy?
• How should you assess a subject's physiological state after deployment?
• Which factors influence the decision to deploy a stun device versus retreating?
• What is the minimum annual training requirement in hours for the use of a dart-firing stun gun?
• What type of information should be documented after an incident involving a stun device?
• The decision to use a DFSG requires what kind of reporting?
• In this mode, the dart-firing stun gun works as a conventional stun gun and is a pain-compliance tool only.
• What is the role of medical staff in the aftermath of a stun device deployment?
• If a subject continues to not comply, and when appropriate, warn of the device's ______.
• What is the importance of continuous training and re-certification?
• What is the recommended approach to monitoring a subject after deployment for potential complications?
• Stun guns operate at ______ currents.
• What distinguishes cartridge-based stun devices from direct-contact devices?
• Which statement correctly describes the roles during DFSG deployment?
• What is the recommended response when a subject refuses commands and appears intoxicated or impaired?
• What personal protective equipment (PPE) considerations may be relevant during deployment?
• What is the term for the predetermined amount of time a stun device will discharge automatically when activated?
• Which factor must be considered when judging whether officers' use of force was justifiable at the time it occurred?
• What feature do the electrodes have to help them grab clothing?
• What is released after firing the stun gun that helps investigators identify which gun was fired and at what location?
• The ideal area of the body for drive stun is what?
• How are the TASER discharge electrodes configured relative to the housing?
• The ______ of a subject's body should be below the neck area for back shots and the lower center mass for the front or large muscle groups such as the back
• What training is typically required to be certified to carry or deploy a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• What component connects the two darts to the TASER device?
• If all efforts to verbally de-escalate the situation are exhausted or are not feasible, the use of a dart-firing stun gun may be ______.
• What is the purpose of a device's safety features in everyday carry?
• Which term describes a device that propels electrified darts, probes, or barbs?
• The path of least resistance on a dart-firing stun gun is
• Which action is NOT a component of post-incident reporting?
• Electricity can arc through clothing and which type of materials?
• Which term describes the energy that is used in these devices to produce the electric shock?
• Who invented the stun gun?
• How does a stun device differ from pepper spray or baton in deployment considerations?
• Which statement best describes the deployment roles?
• Which statement is NOT accurate regarding civilian possession of a stun gun?
• The circuitry includes transformers that ______ the voltage and reduce amperage; the boosted voltage typically ranges from ______ volts.
• When a dart-firing stun gun fires, the probes discharge into the subject. The officer then applies a drive stun away from the probes to achieve what?
• Dart firing stun guns are a subtype of which broad category of devices?
• Which document outlines the rules and standards for use of a stun gun in many jurisdictions?
• Drive stun is described as what type of tool?
• Conventional stun guns use which type of batteries?
• What is the primary purpose of restraint devices in correctional settings?
• What is the usual discharge duration for a stun device when activated?
• If the subject begins to roll after deployment, which action should the officer take to maintain electrical contact?
• In which environments should you avoid using a Dart Firing Stun Gun?
• Which officer takes physical control after compliance is achieved?
• What does CEW stand for?
• What should you do if the device experiences a misfire or partial discharge?
• Which of the following is NOT listed among the mental states associated with bizarre behavior in tased individuals?
• What information do identification tags convey?
• What is the minimum backup presence during DFSG deployment?
• What does NMI stand for?
• The TASER device propels two small darts using what mechanism?
• Which factor most directly determines whether a stun device injures a subject?
• What condition could cause ignition when a dart-firing stun gun is deployed on a subject?
• Which statement best describes the role of de-escalation in deciding to deploy a stun device?
• The stun gun is used to control a person during an arrest or custody when resistance escalates from which to which?
• Which of the following indicates how the two darts are delivered from the main unit?
• Which items are included in comprehensive training for Dart Firing Stun Gun use?
• Before deploying a DFSG, what should the officer warn the subject about?
• The electrical charge from a stun gun is typically unable to damage the body unless applied for what duration?
• Who will take physical control of the subject?
• Electricity will not pass to others in contact with the subject unless contact is made directly between or on the probes.
• Which combination best describes the energy delivered by electronic control devices?
• In the event of a deeply embedded probe, which personnel should perform the removal?
• The subject may not show physical effects from contact but may sustain injuries from _____ caused by the weapon’s effects on the body.
• Which statement best describes the legal status of stun guns in Florida?
• What does the acronym EMD stand for in this context?
• Name two risk factors that increase the likelihood of injury when a stun device is used.
• What are the marks left on a subject's body after a drive stun application called?
• Why is it important to know the device's effective range and limitations?
• In what situations is de-escalation preferred over device deployment?
• When applying force, which approach aligns with the use-of-force continuum?